UGC NET QUESTION 2nd PAPER 2017 (JANUARY)
1. Marginal rate of transformation between two goods X and Y is defined 
Answer: (1)
2. Consider the following statements regarding the expansion path of a firm :
I. It shows least cost combination for producing different level of outputs.
II. The input prices remain constant.
II. The input prices remain constant.
Of the above which statement is/are true ?
Answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(1) Both I and II are true.
(2) Only I is true.
(3) Only II is true.
(4) Neither I nor II is true.
Answer: (1)
3. The First Fundamental Theorem of Welfare Economics requires
(1) producers and consumers to be price takers
(2) that the economy operate at some point on the utility possibility curve
(3) that there be an efficient market for every commodity
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
4. Which among the following allocation/distribution corresponds to Rawlsian concept of equity ?
(1) All members of the society receive equal amount of goods.
(2) Maximise the utility of the least well off people.
(3) Market outcomes are most equitable.
(4) Maximise the total utility of all members of the society.
Answer: (2)
5. Under discriminating monopoly, if the elasticity of demand in market I is 2 and in market II, it is 1, (elasticities being in absolute terms) then the price behaviour of the monopolist will be :
(1) To charge a higher price in market I
(2) To charge a higher price in market II
(3) To charge the same price in both the markets
(4) In market I, charge double the price of that is charged in market II
Answer: (2)
6. Given the demand function :
where symbols have their usual meaning, at which price, the elasticity of demand would be unity ?
(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 5
(4) All of the above
Answer: (4)
7. The idea of indicative planning was first adopted in which Five year Plan of India ?
(1) Second Plan
(2) Fifth Plan
(3) Seventh Plan
(4) Eighth Plan
Answer: (4)
8. Consider the following statements about Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) :
(A) Under RSBY the premium is shared on 85 : 15 basis by the centre and state governments.
(B) In the case of the North-Eastern States and Jammu & Kashmir, under RSBY thepremium is shared in a 90 : 10 ratio.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only (B)
(2) Only (A)
(3) Both (A) & (B)
(4) Neither (A) nor (B)
Answer: (1)
9. Match the following from the list given below : 
Answer: (3)
Answer: (3)
10. Which of the following has the highest share in India’s external debt at the end of March 2015 ?
(1) Rupee debt
(2) NRI deposits
(3) Commercial Borrowings
(4) Export credit
Answer: (3)
11. R.B.I. can print currency notes upto the value of :
(1) Rs. 25,000
(2) Rs. 10,000
(3) Rs. 5,000
(4) Rs. 1,000
Answer: (2)
12. Union Budget 2016-17 imposed a 15% surcharge on the income exceeding
(1) Rs. 2 crore
(2) Rs. 75 lakh
(3) Rs. 10 lakh
(4) Rs. 1 crore
Answer: (4)
13. ‘Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana’ aims to boost :
(1) Drip Irrigation
(2) Organic Farming
(3) Horticulture Crops
(4) Vegetable Production
Answer: (2)
14. Classical dichotomy refers to which one of the following ?
(1) There are two sectors of the economy, namely, agriculture and industry.
(2) Influence of money is not on the real variables like employment and output but onprice level.
(3) Savings come only from profits and not from the wages.
(4) All of the above
Answer: (2)
15. The basic rationale of the theory of ‘Big-Push’ is based upon the idea of
(1) size of population
(2) external economies
(3) internal economies
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2)
16. “Central problem in the theory of economic development is to understand the process by which a community which was previously saving 4 to 5 per cent or less of its national income, converts itself into an economy where voluntary savings is running about 12 to 15 of national income or more.” Who among the following economists is attributed with this view ?
(1) Ragner Nurkse
(2) P.N. Rogenstein-Rodan
(3) Gunnar Myrdal
(4) W. Arthur Lewis
Answer: (4)
17. In the Harrod-Domar equation g = s/v, where v is defined as :
(1) The value of country’s capital stock
(2) Incremental capital output ratio
(3) The change in country’s capital stock
(4) None of the above
Answer: (2)
18. Leibenstein in his critical minimum effort thesis treats population as a factor that is
(1) investment – inducing
(2) income – generating
(3) market – expanding
(4) income – depressing
Answer: (4)
19. Who among the following economists was not associated with the Dependency Theory of Development ?
(1) Raul Prebisch
(2) T.D. Santos
(3) Andre Gunder Frank
(4) Gunnar Myrdal
Answer: (4)
20. The saving function used in the neo-classical growth model is a :
(1) Classical saving function
(2) Proportional saving function
(3) Differential saving function
(4) Constant saving function
Answer: (2)
21. Consider the following items in the balance of payment in India
I. NRI deposits
II. Remittances
Which among the above is/are part of the capital account of balance of payments ?
Answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) Only I above
(2) Only II above
(3) Both I and II above
(4) Neither I nor II above
Answer: (1)
22. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(1) Taussig : Barter Terms of Trade
(2) Prebisch : Deteriorating Terms of Trade
(3) Marshal : Offer Curves
(4) Walras : Dumping Conditions
Answer: (4)
23. Which among the following is correct for the discretionary fiscal action ?
(1) Payment of Unemployment insurance.
(2) Payment of Social Security to the retired individuals.
(3) A managed change in level of Government spending and/or net tax revenues.
(4) Automatic changes in net tax revenues that result from income tax structure.
Answer: (3)
24. Who among the following called trade as the ‘hand maiden’ of growth ?
(1) J. Viner
(2) Irwing B. Kravis
(3) Anne Kruger
(4) J. Bhagwati
Answer: (2)
25. For the import substitution policy of Latin American countries in 1950’s which of the following is/are true ?
I. It resulted in overvalued exchange rate.
II. It treated development as a natural process.
Answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) Both I and II are true.
(2) Only I is true.
(3) Only II is true.
(4) Neither I nor II are true.
Answer: (2)
26. Consider the following concepts :
I. Leontief paradox
II. Linder Hypothesis
Which among the following can be treated as exception to the conclusions of theHeckscher-Ohlin theory ? Answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) Both I and II are exception.
(2) Neither I nor II are exception.
(3) Only I is an exception.
(4) Only II is an exception.
Answer: (1)
27. Which among the following statements are true for the proposed GST arrangements in India ?
I. Both Centre and State taxes will be collected at the point of sale.
II. The Centre and State GST will be charged on the manufacturing cost.
Of the above, which statement/s is/are true ? Answer from the code below :
Codes :
(1) Neither I nor II are true.
(2) Only I is true.
(3) Only II is true.
(4) Both I and II are true.
Answer: (4)
28. Economists refer to an unanticipated inflation that reduces the real value of outstanding government debt as :
(1) Burden of inflation
(2) unanticipated default
(3) seigniorage
(4) the inflation tax
Answer: (4)
29. A public good is
(i) non-excludable in nature.
(ii) nonrival in consumption.
(iii) excludable in nature.
(iv) a good that public must possess.
(ii) nonrival in consumption.
(iii) excludable in nature.
(iv) a good that public must possess.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(1) Both (i) and (ii)
(2) Only (iii)
(3) Both (iii) and (iv)
(4) Only (iv)
Answer: (1)
30. A forward-shifted tax will affect
(1) buyers more than sellers
(2) sellers more than buyers
(3) buyers and sellers equally
(4) government revenues negatively
Answer: (1)
31. Assume B is social benefits, C is social costs, r is the social discount rate, t is the time and T is the life of the investment project. The Net Present Value (NPV) of a project is:
Answer: (1)
Answer: (1)
32. With reference to the characteristics of ‘non-excludability’ and ‘non-rivalry’, “Law and Order” is a classic example of
(1) a negative externality
(2) a positive externality
(3) increasing returns
(4) a public good
Answer: (4)
33. In the trade cycle theory of J.R. Hicks, long run equilibrium growth is determined by
(1) Technology
(2) Population
(3) Autonomous investment
(4) Both (1) and (2) above
Answer: (3)
34. Which among the following is not a characteristic of stagflation ?
(1) High inflation
(2) High unemployment
(3) Low growth
(4) High employment
Answer: (4)
35. Consider the following statements regarding the consumption function fitted by Simon Kutznets to US economic data for the period 1869 to 1929 :
I. There appeared no constant terms in the linear consumption function so fitted.
II. The APC and MPC were not significantly different.
II. The APC and MPC were not significantly different.
Which of the above statement/s is/are true ? Answer from the codes below :
Codes :
(1) Both statements are not true.
(2) Only I is true.
(3) Only II is true.
(4) Both statements I and II are true.
Answer: (4)
36. Which among the following theory/approach does not treat consumption to depend upon expected income ?
(1) Keynes’ approach
(2) Friedman’s approach
(3) Life cycle approach
(4) Both (2) and (3) above
Answer:(1)
37. In an economy, the saving and investment functions are given as :
S = – 100 + 0.2 y
I = – 30 + 0.1 y
I = – 30 + 0.1 y
What will be equilibrium level of income ?
(1) 1000
(2) 900
(3) 600
(4) 700
Answer: (4)
38. For the set of observations : 0, 4, 5, 7, 100, which one of the following is the most suitable average ?
(1) Arithmetic Mean
(2) Geometric Mean
(3) Median
(4) Harmonic Mean
Answer: (3)
39. Which is a random sampling method ?
(1) Quota Sampling
(2) Purposive Sampling
(3) Systematic Sampling
(4) Cluster Sampling
Answer: (3/4)
40. The area between – 3σ and + 3σ under standard normal curve is
(1) 1
(2) 0.9973
(3) 0.95
(4) 0.6826
Answer: (2)
41. For a symmetrical distribution skewness is
(1) 3
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2
Answer: (2)
42. Given the following data :
Number of observations = 100
Arithmetic Mean = 180
Variance = 324
The coefficient of variation will be
(1) 32.4%
(2) 10%
(3) 18%
(4) 1.8%
Answer: (2)
43. Which of the following satisfies time reversal test but not factor reversal test ?
(1) Lespeyres
(2) Marshall-Edgeworth
(3) Fisher
(4) Paascher
Answer: (2)
44. For testing the association of attributes which of the following tests is suitable ?
(1) t test
(2) F test
(3) χ2 test
(4) Z test
Answer: (3)
Note : Questions 45 to 50 are Assertion (A) and Reason (R) type. Key to these questions is as follows :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
45. Assertion (A) : In the long period and in perfect competition, a firm earns only normal profit.
Reason (R) : There are no transport costs in the system.
Answer: (2)
46. Assertion (A) : Labour becomes ready to work overtime.
Reason (R) : Industry pays its employees efficiency wage.
Answer:(2)
47. Assertion (A) : The principle of progressive taxation is a generally accepted state policy.
Reason (R) : Progressive taxation does not affect distribution of income and wealth.
Answer: (3)
48. Assertion (A) : Stagflation can develop due to market imperfections.
Reason (R) : Wage flexibility can cause stagflation.
Answer: (2)
49. Assertion (A) : Friedman treats money as a Luxury good.
Reason (R) : It serves as a medium of exchange.
Answer:(2)
Answer:(2)
50. Assertion (A) : Moving average method is a method of trend estimation.
Reason (R) : Regression method is used to estimate fluctuations in time series.
Answer: (3)
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