MCQs 100
1.which is not feature of public goods ?
A) Non Rival
B) Non Excludeble
C) vertical line
D) Horizontal line
2. If the income elasticity of demand is greater than one, the commodity is:
A) a necessity
B) a luxury
C) an inferior good
D) a non – related good
3. Who first proposed the concept of Marginal Utility to explain consumer surplus?
A) Keynes
B) Dupuit
C) Adam Smith
D) Ricardo
4. “Choice Reveals Preference” according to:
A) Hicks
B) Samuelson
C) Morgenstern
D) Marx
5. When elasticity of demand is greater than one, Marginal Revenue is:
A) negative B) zero
C) positive D) infinity
6. The flat portion of the Saucer Shaped Modern Average Cost Curve represents:
A) Reserve Capacity B) Excess Capacity
C) Minimum Capacity D) None of the above
7. Cost of the next best alternative forgone is termed:
A) sunk effect
B) variable cost
C) average cost
D) opportunity cost
8. For CES production function, elasticity of substitution remains constant and varies between:
A) zero and infinity
B) -1 and +1
C) 0 and 1
D) None of the above
9. Harrod’s Technical Progress is based on:
A) Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution
B) Capital output ratio
C) Industry competitiveness
D) None of the above
10. At the point of tangency between iso-cost lines and highest possible isoquants,
A) MRTS LK = w/r B) MRS xy = Px/Py
C) MR=MC D) None of the above
11. In which market form, reaction of rivals becomes very important
A) Perfect Competition B) Monopoly
C) Monopolistic Competition D) Oligopoly
12. In the long run, under Perfect Competition, firms earn/incur
A) Normal profit B) Loss
C) Abnormal profit D) None of the above
13. Economies of Imperfect Competition is written by
A) Chamberlin B) Joan Robinson
C) Sraffa D) Paul M. Sweezy
14. Each duopolist assumes that his rival will keep his price constant irrespective of his own decision on price. This is the case of ------- duopoly model
A) Cournot B) Stackleberg C) Sweezy D) Bertrand
15. Discriminating monopoly is possible if two markets have
A) Rising cost curves
B) Declining cost curves
C) Different elasticities of demand
D) Equal elasticities of demand
16. The loanable fund theory lays emphasis on the interplay of
A) Monetary factors
B) Real factors
C) Both monetary as well as real factors
D) Liquidity preferences
17. An individual for whom marginal utility of money diminishes, and he or she would not accept a fair bet is a
A) Risk averter B) Risk neutral person
C) Risk lower D) None of the above
18. ------- postulates that a change is an improvement if those who gain from the change can fully compensate the losers and still retain some of the gain
A) Scitovsky criterion B) Harrod – Domar criterion
C) Nelson – Plosser criterion D) Kaldor – Hicks criterion
19. The theory of contestable markets postulates that even though one industry has only one or a few firms, it would still operate as if it were perfectly competitive, if
A) Entry into the industry is absolutely free and if exit is entirely costless
B) Entry into the industry is costly and exit is entirely costless
C) Entry into the industry is absolutely free and if exit is costly
D) None of the above
20. Match List I (Theory of Interest) with List II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I List II
a. Abstinence theory of interest 1. Nassaw William Senior
b. Time Preference theory of interest 2. Bohm Bawerk
c. Loanable Funds theory of interest 3. Knut Wicksell
d. Liquidity Preference theory of interest 4. J.M.Keynes
a b c d
A) 2 3 1 4
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 3 2 4 1
D) 2 3 4 1
21. Which among the following is NOT a stock concept?
A) Wealth B) Government debt
C) Outstanding loan D) Wages
22. Which among the following is correct?
A) GNP at factor cost = GNP at Market Price + Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
B) GNP at factor cost = GNP at Market Price – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
C) GNP at factor cost = GNP at Market Price + Indirect Taxes - Subsidies
D) GNP at factor cost = GNP at Market Price - Indirect Taxes – Subsidies
23. When interest rate increases, people would like to hold less of idle balances, which causes a
A) Negative slope in the LM curve
B) Positive slope in the LM curve
C) Positive slope in the IS curve
D) Negative slope in the IS curve
24. Total value of final goods and services produced in an economy during a year plus net income from abroad is called
A) Gross National Product B) Gross Domestic Product
C) Net National Product D) Net Domestic Product
25. How does expansionary monetary policy affect the rate of interest and level of income?
A) Raises the rate of interest and raises the level of income
B) Raises the level of income but lowers the rate of interest
C) Raises the rate of interest but lowers the level of income
D) Lowers both the rate of interest and level of income
26. If the level of income is zero, consumption at that level is called
A) Minimum Consumption B) Dependent Consumption
C) Autonomous Consumption D) None of the above
27. Which of the following is the correct equation?
A) APC +APS = 1 B) MPC + APC = 1
C) MPC +MPS = 0 D) None of the above
28. If at all rates of interest, the cost of capital assets increases, then the Marginal Efficiency of Capital Curve would
A) remain unchanged B) go beyond the X axis
C) shift rightward D) shift leftward
29. If MPC is 0.6, the investment multiplier will be
A) 1.67 B) 2.5 C) 6.0 D) 4.0
30. When a linear consumption function undergoes a parallel shift downward, the investment multiplier will
A) Fall B) Rise marginally
C) Remain as before D) Become double
31. According to the modern form of Philips Curve, inflation is NOT dependent on
A) Expected inflation B) Cyclical unemployment
C) Supply shocks D) Trade deficit
32. When a variable is shocked away from its initial value, it shows no tendency to return even when the shock is over; this phenomenon is termed as:
A) Okun’s Law B) Sacrifice Ratio
C) Hysteresis D) Keynes effect
33. According to Business Cycle facts, Production is a
A) Leading and counter cyclical variable
B) Coincident and procyclical variable
C) Lagging and acyclical variable
D) None of the above
34. Hansen has produced a Business Cycle theory based on the interaction of multiplier with a weak accelerator which produces Business Cycles which exhibits
A) Consistent divergence B) Explosive divergence
C) Damped oscillation D) Constant oscillation
35. Efficient Financial Market Hypothesis is developed by
A) Paul Krugman B) Christina Romer
C) Milton Friedman D) Eugene Fama
36. Accelerator coefficient is the ratio between
A) Induced investment and an initial change in consumption expenditure
B) Savings and consumption expenditure
C) Income and consumption expenditure
D) Profit and consumption expenditure
37. Which among the following is NOT a policy implication of the New Classical approach?
A) Policy ineffectiveness proposition
B) The output employment cost of reducing inflation
C) The dynamic time inconsistency, credibility and monetary rules
D) Aggregate demand determining the output model
38. Economic Policy: Principles and Design is authored by
A) H.Theil B) R.E. Lucas
C) S.Fischer D) J.Tinbergen
39. According to Lucas supply curve, the amount of output that the firms are willing to supply increases as the ratio of the actual to the expected price level------
A) Remains constant B) Increases
C) Decreases D) None of the above
40. According to monetarists, public sector investment crowds out private sector investment as a result of rise in
A) The money supply B) Aggregate demand
C) Liquidity preference D) Interest rates
41. Coefficient of variation is obtained by the formula
A) Variance/Mean
B) Median / Standard Deviation
C) (Standard Deviation / Mean) × 100
D) Mean/Standard Deviation
42. A distribution is said to be ------- if it is a peaked curve, when plotted
A) Lepto kurtic B) Platy kurtic
C) Meso kurtic D) None of the above
43. When there are both negative and positive observations ------ cannot be computed
A) Harmonic Mean B) Geometric Mean
C) Both A and B D) Arithmetic Mean
44. Deciles divide the total frequency distribution into ------ equal parts
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 10
45. In a regression model, which of the following is NOT an assumption related to the error term
A) Varying mean
B) Constant variance
C) Explanatory variables assumes fixed values in repeated sampling
D) Normally distributed
46. If one of the two rows of A matrix is a multiple of the other row, or one of the columns of A is a multiple of other column, the
A) Determinant of A is one B) Determinant of A is zero
C) Determinant of A is ∞
D) Determinant of A is two
47. For a Total Cost function TC = 20 + 3Q + 2Q2, Marginal Cost (MC) is
A) 4+ 2Q B) 3 + 2Q C) 6 + 4Q D) 3 + 4Q
48. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below List I List II
a. The derivative of a constant 1) 1
b. The derivative of x 2) 0
c. The derivative of x n 3) 1/x
d. The derivative of log x 4) nxn-1
a b c d
A) 2 1 4 3
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 2 3 1 4
49. The only difference between solving a maximization or a minimization problem graphically is that in solving a minimization problem
A) We plot iso-cost lines and try to find the one which is closest to the origin and still touching the feasible region
B) There are no non-negativity constraints
C) The constraints may be equalities as well as inequalities
D) None of the above
50. A matrix in which diagonal elements are one, and off diagonal elements are zero is termed as
A) Identity matrix B) Trace matrix
C) Transpose matrix D) Cofactor matrix
51. A situation in which any kind of examination is impossible because of sample size becoming zero is termed ------
A) Exact micronumerosity B) Exact Autocorrelation
C) Exact Heteroscedasticity D) Exact simultaneous equation bias
52. An additional explanatory variable will
A) Increase R2 B) Decrease R2
C) Keep R2 constant D) None of the above
53. Durbin Watson d statistic ranges from
A) -1 to + 1 B) 0 to 1 C) 0 to 4 D) – ∞ to + ∞
54. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I List II
a. Glesjer test 1) Autocorrelation
b. Spearman’s Rank Correlation 2) Multicollinearity
c. Breush Godfrey test 3) Heteroscedasticity
a b c
A) 1 2 3
B) 2 3 1
C) 3 2 1
D) 1 3 2
55. A special type of data in which the same cross sectional unit is surveyed over time is termed
A) Panel data B) Cross section
C) Time series D) High frequency data
56. Which of the following is an example of random sampling method?
A) Convenience sampling B) Purposive sampling
C) Quota sampling D) Systematic sampling
57. Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of a good estimate?
A) Efficiency B) Consistency
C) Biasedness D) Sufficiency
58. Level of significance refers to the
A) Probability of Type I error
B) Probability of Type II error
C) Probability of Type III error
D) None of the above
59. ------ relies on arranging the target population according to some ordering scheme and then selecting elements at regular intervals through that ordered list
A) Systematic sampling B) Quota sampling
C) Cluster sampling D) None of the above
60. Power of a test is obtained by
A) 1- probability of type II error
B) 1 - probability of type I error
C) 1- probability of type III error
D) None of the above
61. As per 2011 Census, sex ratio (female per 1000 males) in India is
A) 933 B) 927 C) 934 D) 943
62. From which model was the basic plan framework for India’s 1st plan adopted
A) Harrod – Domar B) Rostow
C) Solow D) Ricardo
63. Highest populated state in India as per 2011 Census is
A) Maharashtra B) Bihar
C) Uttar Pradesh D) Andhra Pradesh
64. Yellow revolution in India is associated with
A) Corn seeds B) Flower seeds
C) Food grain seeds D) Oil seeds
65. --------- has been declared as ‘Balika Divas’ (Girl’s Day) by the Ministry of Women and Child Development
A) April 2 B) June 5
C) November 7 D) December 9
66. SJSRY was replaced in September 2013 by
A) JNNURM B) National Urban Livelihood Mission
C) IAY D) None of the above
67. The period of three years 1966-67 to 1968-69 in Indian planning is known as
A) Terminal plan period B) Plan holidays
C) Three year plan D) None of the above
68. Which five year plan of India focused on “Growth with Social Justice and Equity”?
A) 8th Plan B) 9th Plan
C) 7th Plan D) None of the above
69. RBI was established on the suggestion of
1. Hilton Young Commission 2. Central Banking enquiry Committee
3. Craficard Committee 4. Mehta Committee Of these
A) 1 and 2 are correct B) 3 and 4 are correct
C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct D) All are correct
70. Which of the following is NOT a component of Bharat Nirman?
A) Rural housing B) Rural electrification
C) Agro–based industries D) Rural telephoning.
71. Top five countries of export destination from India in 2013-14 include
A) USA, UAE, China, Hong Kong, Singapore
B) UK, China, Sweden, Denmark, Korea
C) Taiwan, Singapore, Hong Kong, Italy, UK
D) Germany, France, USA, UK, Italy
72. As per the 13th Finance Commission’s tax devolution, the weightage given to population is
A) 25% B) 10% C) 47.5% D) 17.5%
73. The Planning Commission in June 2012 constituted an Expert Group under the Chairmanship of Dr. C. Rangarajan to review the methodology for the measurement of ------
A) Inflation B) Unemployment
C) Fiscal deficit D) Poverty
74. The Competition Act 2002 replaces
A) The MRTP Act
B) SEBI Act
C) Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provision) Act
D) Consumer Protection Act
75. Match list I (Finance Commission) with list II (their Chairman) and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I List II
a. First Finance Commission 1. K.C.Neogy
b. Twelfth Finance Commission 2. Y.V.Reddy
c. Thirteenth Finance Commission 3. C.Rangarajan
d. Fourteenth Finance Commission 4.Vijay Kelkar
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 1 3 4 2
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 2 3 4 1
76. Which district in Kerala has the highest sex ratio as per 2011 Census?
A) Kannur B) Wayanad
C) Kottayam D) Pathanamthitta
77. Kerala’s density of population per sq.km as per 2011 census is
A) 895 persons B) 860 persons
C) 940 persons D) 995 persons
78. During 2014-15, the contribution from primary sector to the Gross State Value Added at constant prices (2011-12), was
A) 25.11 per cent B) 14.50 per cent
C) 12.15 per cent D) 17.81 per cent
79. Least populated district in Kerala in 2011
A) Wayanad B) Pathanamthitta
C) Kasaragode D) Palakkad
80. According to Economic Review 2015, the growth rate of Kerala’s GSDP at Constant (2011-12) prices during 2012-13 is
A) 4.54 per cent B) 5.34 per cent
C) 8.92 per cent D) 6.50 per cent
81. The components of PQLI are
A) Life Expectancy, IMR, Literacy Rate
B) Life Expectancy, Per capita Income, IMR
C) Gross enrolment ratio, poverty head count, literacy rate
D) Death rate, birth rate, IMR
82. “Inducement to investment is limited by the size of the market” is advocated by
A) Keynes B) Allen Young C) Romer D) Todaro
83. Population is a positive factor to economic development – this argument is attributed to:
A) Malthus B) Enke
C) Hover D) Julies Simon
84. Who among the following divided technology gap between rich and poor into two components: a physical object gap and an idle gap?
A) Paul Romer B) Thomas Homer
C) Marshall D) G. Myrdal
85. An economist who summed up six factors that led to the growth of advanced industrial economies and termed them as “the stylized factors”
A) Singer B) Kaldor
C) Keynes D) Joan Robinson
86. Which model has suggested that growth is directly related to savings and indirectly to capital output ratio?
A) Ricardo B) Lucas – Romer
C) Meade D) Harrod Domar
87. The major difference between Harrod Domar and Solow models of growth lies in
A) Definition of labour
B) Definition of capital
C) Substitutability between labour and capital
D) Assumption regarding returns to scale
88. Mahalanobis model laid great stress on the development of
A) Energy B) Heavy industries
C) Agriculture D) Science and technology
89. The concept of Technological dualism is associated with
A) B. Higgins B) Simon Kuznets
C) J.H. Boeke D) H. Myint
90. Who has done the pioneering work to statistically separate the contribution of technological progress to economic growth?
A) Robert Solow B) Myrdal
C) B. Higgins D) J.R. Hicks
91. The theory of low level equilibrium trap is associated with
A) H. Leibenstein B) Nelson
C) H. Myint D) Lewis
92. Theory of growth developed by Schumpeter gives importance to the
A) Role of innovation B) Development of infrastructure
C) Role of managers D) Role of labour
93. ------- method of valuing an environment is NOT related to market price
A) Hedonic methods B) Contingent Valuation
C) Travel cost method D) None of the above
94. ------- method has frequently been used to value recreational sites
A) Travel Cost method B) Marginal cost method
C) Conjoint method D) None of the above
95. Value of a resource includes
A) Option value B) Bequest value
C) Existence value D) All of the above
96. The term ‘option value’ and its theoretical underpinning as a non – user benefit were initially developed in 1964 by -------
A) R.G. Walsh B) Nicolas Stern
C) Burton Weisbrod D) Coase
97. In an economy given MPC 0.8 and tax rate 0.2 an increse in autonomous investment 360 will lead to increse in output ?
A) 1800 B) 2600
C) 1000 D) 3600
98.Reverse Report rate is ....
A)Independent
B)Dependent
C)Both
D)None
98.from New finance year 2019 , how many Public sector bank will be functioned in India?
A) 18
B) 19
C) 20
D) 21
99.If Consumption function: C = 150 + 0.8y,Government expenditures: G = 300
Tax revenues: T = 250 &Investment = 100 then what is surplus or deficit of Government?
A) 1750
B) -50
C)+50
D) 100
100.The National Urban Health Mission was launched in the year
1. 1998
2. 2009
3. 1991
4. 2005
A) Non Rival
B) Non Excludeble
C) vertical line
D) Horizontal line
2. If the income elasticity of demand is greater than one, the commodity is:
A) a necessity
B) a luxury
C) an inferior good
D) a non – related good
3. Who first proposed the concept of Marginal Utility to explain consumer surplus?
A) Keynes
B) Dupuit
C) Adam Smith
D) Ricardo
4. “Choice Reveals Preference” according to:
A) Hicks
B) Samuelson
C) Morgenstern
D) Marx
5. When elasticity of demand is greater than one, Marginal Revenue is:
A) negative B) zero
C) positive D) infinity
6. The flat portion of the Saucer Shaped Modern Average Cost Curve represents:
A) Reserve Capacity B) Excess Capacity
C) Minimum Capacity D) None of the above
7. Cost of the next best alternative forgone is termed:
A) sunk effect
B) variable cost
C) average cost
D) opportunity cost
8. For CES production function, elasticity of substitution remains constant and varies between:
A) zero and infinity
B) -1 and +1
C) 0 and 1
D) None of the above
9. Harrod’s Technical Progress is based on:
A) Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution
B) Capital output ratio
C) Industry competitiveness
D) None of the above
10. At the point of tangency between iso-cost lines and highest possible isoquants,
A) MRTS LK = w/r B) MRS xy = Px/Py
C) MR=MC D) None of the above
11. In which market form, reaction of rivals becomes very important
A) Perfect Competition B) Monopoly
C) Monopolistic Competition D) Oligopoly
12. In the long run, under Perfect Competition, firms earn/incur
A) Normal profit B) Loss
C) Abnormal profit D) None of the above
13. Economies of Imperfect Competition is written by
A) Chamberlin B) Joan Robinson
C) Sraffa D) Paul M. Sweezy
14. Each duopolist assumes that his rival will keep his price constant irrespective of his own decision on price. This is the case of ------- duopoly model
A) Cournot B) Stackleberg C) Sweezy D) Bertrand
15. Discriminating monopoly is possible if two markets have
A) Rising cost curves
B) Declining cost curves
C) Different elasticities of demand
D) Equal elasticities of demand
16. The loanable fund theory lays emphasis on the interplay of
A) Monetary factors
B) Real factors
C) Both monetary as well as real factors
D) Liquidity preferences
17. An individual for whom marginal utility of money diminishes, and he or she would not accept a fair bet is a
A) Risk averter B) Risk neutral person
C) Risk lower D) None of the above
18. ------- postulates that a change is an improvement if those who gain from the change can fully compensate the losers and still retain some of the gain
A) Scitovsky criterion B) Harrod – Domar criterion
C) Nelson – Plosser criterion D) Kaldor – Hicks criterion
19. The theory of contestable markets postulates that even though one industry has only one or a few firms, it would still operate as if it were perfectly competitive, if
A) Entry into the industry is absolutely free and if exit is entirely costless
B) Entry into the industry is costly and exit is entirely costless
C) Entry into the industry is absolutely free and if exit is costly
D) None of the above
20. Match List I (Theory of Interest) with List II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I List II
a. Abstinence theory of interest 1. Nassaw William Senior
b. Time Preference theory of interest 2. Bohm Bawerk
c. Loanable Funds theory of interest 3. Knut Wicksell
d. Liquidity Preference theory of interest 4. J.M.Keynes
a b c d
A) 2 3 1 4
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 3 2 4 1
D) 2 3 4 1
21. Which among the following is NOT a stock concept?
A) Wealth B) Government debt
C) Outstanding loan D) Wages
22. Which among the following is correct?
A) GNP at factor cost = GNP at Market Price + Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
B) GNP at factor cost = GNP at Market Price – Indirect Taxes + Subsidies
C) GNP at factor cost = GNP at Market Price + Indirect Taxes - Subsidies
D) GNP at factor cost = GNP at Market Price - Indirect Taxes – Subsidies
23. When interest rate increases, people would like to hold less of idle balances, which causes a
A) Negative slope in the LM curve
B) Positive slope in the LM curve
C) Positive slope in the IS curve
D) Negative slope in the IS curve
24. Total value of final goods and services produced in an economy during a year plus net income from abroad is called
A) Gross National Product B) Gross Domestic Product
C) Net National Product D) Net Domestic Product
25. How does expansionary monetary policy affect the rate of interest and level of income?
A) Raises the rate of interest and raises the level of income
B) Raises the level of income but lowers the rate of interest
C) Raises the rate of interest but lowers the level of income
D) Lowers both the rate of interest and level of income
26. If the level of income is zero, consumption at that level is called
A) Minimum Consumption B) Dependent Consumption
C) Autonomous Consumption D) None of the above
27. Which of the following is the correct equation?
A) APC +APS = 1 B) MPC + APC = 1
C) MPC +MPS = 0 D) None of the above
28. If at all rates of interest, the cost of capital assets increases, then the Marginal Efficiency of Capital Curve would
A) remain unchanged B) go beyond the X axis
C) shift rightward D) shift leftward
29. If MPC is 0.6, the investment multiplier will be
A) 1.67 B) 2.5 C) 6.0 D) 4.0
30. When a linear consumption function undergoes a parallel shift downward, the investment multiplier will
A) Fall B) Rise marginally
C) Remain as before D) Become double
31. According to the modern form of Philips Curve, inflation is NOT dependent on
A) Expected inflation B) Cyclical unemployment
C) Supply shocks D) Trade deficit
32. When a variable is shocked away from its initial value, it shows no tendency to return even when the shock is over; this phenomenon is termed as:
A) Okun’s Law B) Sacrifice Ratio
C) Hysteresis D) Keynes effect
33. According to Business Cycle facts, Production is a
A) Leading and counter cyclical variable
B) Coincident and procyclical variable
C) Lagging and acyclical variable
D) None of the above
34. Hansen has produced a Business Cycle theory based on the interaction of multiplier with a weak accelerator which produces Business Cycles which exhibits
A) Consistent divergence B) Explosive divergence
C) Damped oscillation D) Constant oscillation
35. Efficient Financial Market Hypothesis is developed by
A) Paul Krugman B) Christina Romer
C) Milton Friedman D) Eugene Fama
36. Accelerator coefficient is the ratio between
A) Induced investment and an initial change in consumption expenditure
B) Savings and consumption expenditure
C) Income and consumption expenditure
D) Profit and consumption expenditure
37. Which among the following is NOT a policy implication of the New Classical approach?
A) Policy ineffectiveness proposition
B) The output employment cost of reducing inflation
C) The dynamic time inconsistency, credibility and monetary rules
D) Aggregate demand determining the output model
38. Economic Policy: Principles and Design is authored by
A) H.Theil B) R.E. Lucas
C) S.Fischer D) J.Tinbergen
39. According to Lucas supply curve, the amount of output that the firms are willing to supply increases as the ratio of the actual to the expected price level------
A) Remains constant B) Increases
C) Decreases D) None of the above
40. According to monetarists, public sector investment crowds out private sector investment as a result of rise in
A) The money supply B) Aggregate demand
C) Liquidity preference D) Interest rates
41. Coefficient of variation is obtained by the formula
A) Variance/Mean
B) Median / Standard Deviation
C) (Standard Deviation / Mean) × 100
D) Mean/Standard Deviation
42. A distribution is said to be ------- if it is a peaked curve, when plotted
A) Lepto kurtic B) Platy kurtic
C) Meso kurtic D) None of the above
43. When there are both negative and positive observations ------ cannot be computed
A) Harmonic Mean B) Geometric Mean
C) Both A and B D) Arithmetic Mean
44. Deciles divide the total frequency distribution into ------ equal parts
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 10
45. In a regression model, which of the following is NOT an assumption related to the error term
A) Varying mean
B) Constant variance
C) Explanatory variables assumes fixed values in repeated sampling
D) Normally distributed
46. If one of the two rows of A matrix is a multiple of the other row, or one of the columns of A is a multiple of other column, the
A) Determinant of A is one B) Determinant of A is zero
C) Determinant of A is ∞
D) Determinant of A is two
47. For a Total Cost function TC = 20 + 3Q + 2Q2, Marginal Cost (MC) is
A) 4+ 2Q B) 3 + 2Q C) 6 + 4Q D) 3 + 4Q
48. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below List I List II
a. The derivative of a constant 1) 1
b. The derivative of x 2) 0
c. The derivative of x n 3) 1/x
d. The derivative of log x 4) nxn-1
a b c d
A) 2 1 4 3
B) 1 2 3 4
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 2 3 1 4
49. The only difference between solving a maximization or a minimization problem graphically is that in solving a minimization problem
A) We plot iso-cost lines and try to find the one which is closest to the origin and still touching the feasible region
B) There are no non-negativity constraints
C) The constraints may be equalities as well as inequalities
D) None of the above
50. A matrix in which diagonal elements are one, and off diagonal elements are zero is termed as
A) Identity matrix B) Trace matrix
C) Transpose matrix D) Cofactor matrix
51. A situation in which any kind of examination is impossible because of sample size becoming zero is termed ------
A) Exact micronumerosity B) Exact Autocorrelation
C) Exact Heteroscedasticity D) Exact simultaneous equation bias
52. An additional explanatory variable will
A) Increase R2 B) Decrease R2
C) Keep R2 constant D) None of the above
53. Durbin Watson d statistic ranges from
A) -1 to + 1 B) 0 to 1 C) 0 to 4 D) – ∞ to + ∞
54. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I List II
a. Glesjer test 1) Autocorrelation
b. Spearman’s Rank Correlation 2) Multicollinearity
c. Breush Godfrey test 3) Heteroscedasticity
a b c
A) 1 2 3
B) 2 3 1
C) 3 2 1
D) 1 3 2
55. A special type of data in which the same cross sectional unit is surveyed over time is termed
A) Panel data B) Cross section
C) Time series D) High frequency data
56. Which of the following is an example of random sampling method?
A) Convenience sampling B) Purposive sampling
C) Quota sampling D) Systematic sampling
57. Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of a good estimate?
A) Efficiency B) Consistency
C) Biasedness D) Sufficiency
58. Level of significance refers to the
A) Probability of Type I error
B) Probability of Type II error
C) Probability of Type III error
D) None of the above
59. ------ relies on arranging the target population according to some ordering scheme and then selecting elements at regular intervals through that ordered list
A) Systematic sampling B) Quota sampling
C) Cluster sampling D) None of the above
60. Power of a test is obtained by
A) 1- probability of type II error
B) 1 - probability of type I error
C) 1- probability of type III error
D) None of the above
61. As per 2011 Census, sex ratio (female per 1000 males) in India is
A) 933 B) 927 C) 934 D) 943
62. From which model was the basic plan framework for India’s 1st plan adopted
A) Harrod – Domar B) Rostow
C) Solow D) Ricardo
63. Highest populated state in India as per 2011 Census is
A) Maharashtra B) Bihar
C) Uttar Pradesh D) Andhra Pradesh
64. Yellow revolution in India is associated with
A) Corn seeds B) Flower seeds
C) Food grain seeds D) Oil seeds
65. --------- has been declared as ‘Balika Divas’ (Girl’s Day) by the Ministry of Women and Child Development
A) April 2 B) June 5
C) November 7 D) December 9
66. SJSRY was replaced in September 2013 by
A) JNNURM B) National Urban Livelihood Mission
C) IAY D) None of the above
67. The period of three years 1966-67 to 1968-69 in Indian planning is known as
A) Terminal plan period B) Plan holidays
C) Three year plan D) None of the above
68. Which five year plan of India focused on “Growth with Social Justice and Equity”?
A) 8th Plan B) 9th Plan
C) 7th Plan D) None of the above
69. RBI was established on the suggestion of
1. Hilton Young Commission 2. Central Banking enquiry Committee
3. Craficard Committee 4. Mehta Committee Of these
A) 1 and 2 are correct B) 3 and 4 are correct
C) 1, 2 and 3 are correct D) All are correct
70. Which of the following is NOT a component of Bharat Nirman?
A) Rural housing B) Rural electrification
C) Agro–based industries D) Rural telephoning.
71. Top five countries of export destination from India in 2013-14 include
A) USA, UAE, China, Hong Kong, Singapore
B) UK, China, Sweden, Denmark, Korea
C) Taiwan, Singapore, Hong Kong, Italy, UK
D) Germany, France, USA, UK, Italy
72. As per the 13th Finance Commission’s tax devolution, the weightage given to population is
A) 25% B) 10% C) 47.5% D) 17.5%
73. The Planning Commission in June 2012 constituted an Expert Group under the Chairmanship of Dr. C. Rangarajan to review the methodology for the measurement of ------
A) Inflation B) Unemployment
C) Fiscal deficit D) Poverty
74. The Competition Act 2002 replaces
A) The MRTP Act
B) SEBI Act
C) Sick Industrial Companies (Special Provision) Act
D) Consumer Protection Act
75. Match list I (Finance Commission) with list II (their Chairman) and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I List II
a. First Finance Commission 1. K.C.Neogy
b. Twelfth Finance Commission 2. Y.V.Reddy
c. Thirteenth Finance Commission 3. C.Rangarajan
d. Fourteenth Finance Commission 4.Vijay Kelkar
a b c d
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 1 3 4 2
C) 3 2 1 4
D) 2 3 4 1
76. Which district in Kerala has the highest sex ratio as per 2011 Census?
A) Kannur B) Wayanad
C) Kottayam D) Pathanamthitta
77. Kerala’s density of population per sq.km as per 2011 census is
A) 895 persons B) 860 persons
C) 940 persons D) 995 persons
78. During 2014-15, the contribution from primary sector to the Gross State Value Added at constant prices (2011-12), was
A) 25.11 per cent B) 14.50 per cent
C) 12.15 per cent D) 17.81 per cent
79. Least populated district in Kerala in 2011
A) Wayanad B) Pathanamthitta
C) Kasaragode D) Palakkad
80. According to Economic Review 2015, the growth rate of Kerala’s GSDP at Constant (2011-12) prices during 2012-13 is
A) 4.54 per cent B) 5.34 per cent
C) 8.92 per cent D) 6.50 per cent
81. The components of PQLI are
A) Life Expectancy, IMR, Literacy Rate
B) Life Expectancy, Per capita Income, IMR
C) Gross enrolment ratio, poverty head count, literacy rate
D) Death rate, birth rate, IMR
82. “Inducement to investment is limited by the size of the market” is advocated by
A) Keynes B) Allen Young C) Romer D) Todaro
83. Population is a positive factor to economic development – this argument is attributed to:
A) Malthus B) Enke
C) Hover D) Julies Simon
84. Who among the following divided technology gap between rich and poor into two components: a physical object gap and an idle gap?
A) Paul Romer B) Thomas Homer
C) Marshall D) G. Myrdal
85. An economist who summed up six factors that led to the growth of advanced industrial economies and termed them as “the stylized factors”
A) Singer B) Kaldor
C) Keynes D) Joan Robinson
86. Which model has suggested that growth is directly related to savings and indirectly to capital output ratio?
A) Ricardo B) Lucas – Romer
C) Meade D) Harrod Domar
87. The major difference between Harrod Domar and Solow models of growth lies in
A) Definition of labour
B) Definition of capital
C) Substitutability between labour and capital
D) Assumption regarding returns to scale
88. Mahalanobis model laid great stress on the development of
A) Energy B) Heavy industries
C) Agriculture D) Science and technology
89. The concept of Technological dualism is associated with
A) B. Higgins B) Simon Kuznets
C) J.H. Boeke D) H. Myint
90. Who has done the pioneering work to statistically separate the contribution of technological progress to economic growth?
A) Robert Solow B) Myrdal
C) B. Higgins D) J.R. Hicks
91. The theory of low level equilibrium trap is associated with
A) H. Leibenstein B) Nelson
C) H. Myint D) Lewis
92. Theory of growth developed by Schumpeter gives importance to the
A) Role of innovation B) Development of infrastructure
C) Role of managers D) Role of labour
93. ------- method of valuing an environment is NOT related to market price
A) Hedonic methods B) Contingent Valuation
C) Travel cost method D) None of the above
94. ------- method has frequently been used to value recreational sites
A) Travel Cost method B) Marginal cost method
C) Conjoint method D) None of the above
95. Value of a resource includes
A) Option value B) Bequest value
C) Existence value D) All of the above
96. The term ‘option value’ and its theoretical underpinning as a non – user benefit were initially developed in 1964 by -------
A) R.G. Walsh B) Nicolas Stern
C) Burton Weisbrod D) Coase
97. In an economy given MPC 0.8 and tax rate 0.2 an increse in autonomous investment 360 will lead to increse in output ?
A) 1800 B) 2600
C) 1000 D) 3600
98.Reverse Report rate is ....
A)Independent
B)Dependent
C)Both
D)None
98.from New finance year 2019 , how many Public sector bank will be functioned in India?
A) 18
B) 19
C) 20
D) 21
99.If Consumption function: C = 150 + 0.8y,Government expenditures: G = 300
Tax revenues: T = 250 &Investment = 100 then what is surplus or deficit of Government?
A) 1750
B) -50
C)+50
D) 100
100.The National Urban Health Mission was launched in the year
1. 1998
2. 2009
3. 1991
4. 2005
Question no 30
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